no...yu divide bi x-1, so at x=1, divide bi zero...no-no
Unless all that stuf on top become 1 as n become very big?????????
in fakt, 1+3+5+...(2n-1)=n^2...iit be arithmetik sequens
thus, at x=1, top become n^2-n^2=0
Then 0/0...NOT DEFINED
Yu kood make funk kontinyuus if yu add statement that define f(x)=1 at x=1