Write down, with proof, bijective functions with the indicated domains and codomains:

(a) f : {2 ^−k : k ∈ N} → {2 ^ (-k-1): k ∈ N}

(b) g : (0, 1) → (0, 1]—you may use the function f from the previous part in your work.
in Other Math Topics by

Your answer

Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
To avoid this verification in future, please log in or register.

1 Answer

(1)

f(x)=x/2 x=2⁻: k

Let y=f(x)=x/2, so x=2y.

Let g(y)=x=2y, then g(x)=2x x=2¹⁻: k, and g(x)=f⁻¹(x).

Therefore f(x) is bijective because it has an inverse.

Range of f(x) is (0,½]. Range of g(x) is (0,1] which is the range of f⁻¹(x).

(2) 

g:(0,1)→(0,1]

Consider (2¹⁻²+2⁻-1)/(2¹⁻-1) for k.

When k=1, the expression is undefined.

As k→∞, the expression → 1.

For x=2⁻, the expression becomes (2x²+x-1)/(2x-1)=(2x-1)(x+1)/(2x-1).

This expression reduces to x+1 for x≠½. When k=1, x=½.

Let g(x)=(2x²+x-1)/(2x-1) which has the range (0,1) and domain (0,½), since x=2⁻: k.

If y=g(x)=x+1, then x=y-1, so if h(y)=x, h(y)=y-1, h(x)=x-1. And h(x)=g⁻¹(x), so g(x) has an inverse which makes g bijective.

by Top Rated User (1.1m points)

Related questions

1 answer
asked Apr 21, 2013 in Calculus Answers by anonymous | 522 views
1 answer
1 answer
asked Sep 17, 2018 in Other Math Topics by unathi | 207 views
1 answer
asked Jul 17, 2016 in Other Math Topics by J THE MAN | 624 views
Welcome to MathHomeworkAnswers.org, where students, teachers and math enthusiasts can ask and answer any math question. Get help and answers to any math problem including algebra, trigonometry, geometry, calculus, trigonometry, fractions, solving expression, simplifying expressions and more. Get answers to math questions. Help is always 100% free!
87,544 questions
99,732 answers
2,417 comments
482,951 users