Prove that if a nonempty set is bounded above, then it has exact upper bound.
in Other Math Topics by

Your answer

Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
To avoid this verification in future, please log in or register.

1 Answer

In a numeric, non-empty, finite set the elements can be arranged in order. If this order is represented by:

{e0, e1, e2, ...,en} where ei≥ei-1 for i>0.

en is the upper bound, U, and en≥en-1, en-1≤U.

In an infinite series the infinite set consisting of individual terms (ai) of the series, such that all ai>ai-1 for 1<i≤n, then an>an-1 as n→∞, the series converges to an upper limit U. No element of the series exceeds U. (Many series converge to a limit, but the terms alternate from above to below that limit. These series would not then be bounded above because of the bidirectional approach to the limit. In this question, because the series or set is bounded above, no individual element in the set can exceed the upper bound.)

by Top Rated User (1.1m points)

Related questions

1 answer
asked Apr 10, 2022 in Statistics Answers by Find the upperbound of the equation | 400 views
0 answers
1 answer
0 answers
Welcome to MathHomeworkAnswers.org, where students, teachers and math enthusiasts can ask and answer any math question. Get help and answers to any math problem including algebra, trigonometry, geometry, calculus, trigonometry, fractions, solving expression, simplifying expressions and more. Get answers to math questions. Help is always 100% free!
87,550 questions
99,628 answers
2,417 comments
440,989 users